The Best Practice Test Preparation for the CS0-002 Certification Exam
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To become certified in CompTIA CS0-002, candidates must have a minimum of 4 years of experience working in the cybersecurity field. Additionally, they must have a deep understanding of cybersecurity concepts and best practices. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is aimed at individuals who are looking to advance their careers in cybersecurity and are seeking to demonstrate their expertise in the field.
NEW QUESTION # 155
A company's blocklist has outgrown the current technologies in place. The ACLS are at maximum, and the IPS signatures only allow a certain
amount of space for domains to be added, creating the need for multiple signatures.
Which of the following configuration changes to the existing controls would be the MOST appropriate to improve performance?
- A. Review the current blocklist and prioritize it based on the level of threat severity. Add the domains with the highest severity to the blocklist and remove the lower-severity threats from it.
- B. Implement a host-file based solution that will use a list of all domains to deny for all machines on the network
- C. Review the current blocklist to determine which domains can be removed from the list and then update the ACLs and IPS signatures.
- D. Create an IDS for the current blocklist to determine which domains are showing activity and may need to be removed.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 156
An internally developed file-monitoring system identified the following except as causing a program to crash often:
Which of the following should a security analyst recommend to fix the issue?
- A. Increase the size of the file data buffer
- B. Open the access.log file ri read/write mode.
- C. Perform input samtizaton
- D. Replace the strcpv function.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 157
While reviewing a cyber-risk assessment, an analyst notes there are concerns related to FPGA usage. Which of the following statements would BEST convince the analyst's supervisor to use additional controls?
- A. FPGAs are expensive and can only be programmed once. Code deployment safeguards are needed.
- B. FPGAs are vulnerable to malware installation and require additional protections for their codebase.
- C. FPGAs have an inflexible architecture. Additional training for developers is needed
- D. FPGAs are expensive to produce. Anti-counterierting safeguards are needed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Ethernet switches are mass-produced and offered at discounts on not so widely-used chips with massive economies of scale. While in case of FPGAs,they are used as Ethernet switches and hence cost more since the expense of development and infrastructure are distributed among fewer clients.
NEW QUESTION # 158
A security analyst at exampte.com receives a SIEM alert for an IDS signature and reviews the associated packet capture and TCP stream:
Winch of the following actions should the security analyst lake NEXT?
- A. Review the known Apache vulnerabilities to determine if a compromise actually occurred
- B. Raise a request to the firewall team to block 203.0.113.15.
- C. Mark the alert as a false positive scan coming from an approved source.
- D. Contact the application owner for connect example local tor additional information
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 159
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to upgrade an organization's security posture by improving proactive activities associated with attacks from internal and external threats.
Which of the following is the MOST proactive tool or technique that feeds incident response capabilities?
- A. Log correlation, monitoring, and automated reporting through a SIEM platform
- B. Continuous compliance monitoring using SCAP dashboards
- C. Quarterly vulnerability scanning using credentialed scans
- D. Development of a hypothesis as part of threat hunting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION # 160
An organization has a strict policy that if elevated permissions are needed, users should always run commands under their own account, with temporary administrator privileges if necessary. A security analyst is reviewing syslog entries and sees the following:
Which of the following entries should cause the analyst the MOST concern?
- A. <100>2 2020-01-10T20:36:36.0010z financeserver su 201 32001 = BOM ' sudo vi users.txt success
- B. <100> 2020-01-10T19:33:48.002z webserver sudo 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi httpd.conf' success
- C. <100> 2020-01-10T19:34..002z financeserver su 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi success
- D. <100>2 2020-01-10T19:33:41.002z webserver su 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi httpd.conf' failed for joe
- E. <100> 2020-01-10T19:33:48.002z webserver sudo 201 32001 = BOM ' su vi syslog.conf failed for jos
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 161
A security analyst is reviewing the following log from an email security service.
Which of the following BEST describes the reason why the email was blocked?
- A. The IP address was blacklisted.
- B. The IP address and the remote server name are the same.
- C. The To address is invalid.
- D. The email originated from the www.spamfilter.org URL.
- E. The From address is invalid.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 162
A cybersecunty analyst needs to harden a server that is currently being used as a web server The server needs to be accessible when entenng www company com into the browser Additionally web pages require frequent updates which are performed by a remote contractor Given the following output:
Which of the following should the cybersecunty analyst recommend to harden the server? (Select TWO).
- A. Uninstall the DNS service
- B. Block port 80 with the host-based firewall
- C. Disable the Telnet service
- D. Change the SSH port to a non-standard port
- E. Perform a vulnerability scan
- F. Change the server's IP to a private IP address
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION # 163
A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server. The analyst issues the ps command and receives the following output.
Which of the following commands should the administrator run NEXT to further analyze the compromised system?
- A. kill -9 1301
- B. strace /proc/1301
- C. rpm -V openash-server
- D. /bin/la -1 /proc/1301/exe
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 164
As part of an organization's information security governance process, a Chief Information Security Officer
(CISO) is working with the compliance officer to update policies to include statements related to new
regulatory and legal requirements. Which of the following should be done to BEST ensure all employees are
appropriately aware of changes to the policies?
- A. Distribute revised copies of policies to employees and obtain a signed acknowledgement from them
- B. Post the policies on the organization's intranet and provide copies of any revised policies to all active
- C. Conduct a risk assessment based on the controls defined in the newly revised policies
- D. Require all employees to attend updated security awareness training and sign an acknowledgement
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 165
An organization is performing a risk assessment to prioritize resources for mitigation and remediation based on impact. Which of the following metrics, in addition to the CVSS for each CVE, would best enable the organization to prioritize its efforts?
- A. Mission criticality
- B. OS type
- C. Patch availability
- D. OS or application versions
- E. System architecture
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the potential threats and vulnerabilities that may affect an organization's assets, operations, or objectives. A risk assessment matrix is a tool that can help prioritize the risks based on their likelihood and impact1.
The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities in software systems. The CVSS provides a numerical score from 0 to 10, as well as a qualitative rating from Low to Critical, based on the characteristics and consequences of the vulnerability2.
However, the CVSS score alone may not be sufficient to determine the priority of mitigation and remediation actions for each vulnerability. Other factors that may influence the decision include:
Patch availability: This metric indicates whether there is a fix or update available for the vulnerability from the vendor or developer. Patch availability can affect the urgency and feasibility of remediation, as well as the risk exposure and potential damage of exploitation. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but with a readily available patch may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but with no patch available3.
Mission criticality: This metric reflects the importance and value of the asset or system affected by the vulnerability to the organization's mission, goals, or functions. Mission criticality can affect the impact and priority of remediation, as well as the risk tolerance and acceptance level of the organization. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting a non-essential system may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting a core system4.
OS type: This metric indicates the operating system (OS) of the asset or system affected by the vulnerability. OS type can affect the likelihood and complexity of exploitation, as well as the availability and compatibility of patches or mitigations. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting an uncommon or unsupported OS may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting a widely used or supported OS3.
OS or application versions: This metric indicates the specific version of the OS or application affected by the vulnerability. OS or application versions can affect the applicability and relevance of the vulnerability, as well as the availability and compatibility of patches or mitigations. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting an outdated or obsolete version may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting a current or popular version3.
System architecture: This metric indicates the design and configuration of the asset or system affected by the vulnerability. System architecture can affect the exposure and accessibility of the vulnerability, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of patches or mitigations. For example, a vulnerability with a high CVSS score but affecting an isolated or segmented system may be less critical than a vulnerability with a lower CVSS score but affecting an interconnected or integrated system3.
Therefore, to best enable the organization to prioritize its efforts based on impact, patch availability is one of the most important metrics to consider in addition to the CVSS score for each CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures). Patch availability can directly influence the risk level and remediation strategy for each vulnerability.
NEW QUESTION # 166
A security analyst is investigating a reported phishing attempt that was received by many users throughout the company The text of one of the emails is shown below:
Office 365 User.
It looks like you account has been locked out Please click this <a href=Tittp7/accountfix-office356 com/login php">link</a> and follow the pfompts to restore access Regards.
Security Team
Due to the size of the company and the high storage requirements, the company does not log DNS requests or perform packet captures of network traffic, but rt does log network flow data Which of the following commands will the analyst most likely execute NEXT?
- A. curl http:// accountfix-office365.com/login. php
- B. telnet office365.com 25
- C. nslookup accountfix-office365.com
- D. tracert 122.167.40.119
Answer: C
Explanation:
nslookup is a command-line tool that can query the Domain Name System (DNS) and display information about domain names and IP addresses. The security analyst can use nslookup to find out the IP address of the malicious domain accountfix-office365.com that was used in the phishing attempt. This could help the analyst to block or trace the source of the attack. telnet, tracert, and curl are other command-line tools, but they are not as useful as nslookup for investigating a phishing attempt based on a domain name. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/nslookup
NEW QUESTION # 167
A security analyst for a large financial institution is creating a threat model for a specific threat actor that is likely targeting an organization's financial assets.
Which of the following is the BEST example of the level of sophistication this threat actor is using?
- A. Email addresses and phone numbers tied to the threat actor
- B. Custom malware attributed to the threat actor from prior attacks
- C. Social media accounts attributed to the threat actor
- D. IP addresses used by the threat actor for command and control
- E. Network assets used in previous attacks attributed to the threat actor
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 168
A security analyst notices the following proxy log entries:
Which of the following is the user attempting to do based on the log entries?
- A. Scan the network.
- B. Exfiltrate data.
- C. Use a DoS attack on external hosts.
- D. Relay email.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Scanning the network is what the user is attempting to do based on the log entries. The log entries show that the user is sending ping requests to various IP addresses on different ports using a proxy server. Ping requests are a common network diagnostic tool that can be used to test network connectivity and latency by sending packets of data and measuring their response time. However, ping requests can also be used by attackers to scan the network and discover active hosts, open ports, or potential vulnerabilities .
NEW QUESTION # 169
A company's legal department is concerned that its incident response plan does not cover the countless ways security incidents can occur. The department has asked a security analyst to help tailor the response plan to provide broad coverage for many situations. Which of the following is the best way to achieve this goal?
- A. Focus on common attack vectors first.
- B. Focus on incidents that have a high chance of reputation harm.
- C. Focus on incidents that may require law enforcement support.
- D. Focus on incidents that affect critical systems.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An incident response plan should cover the most important and likely scenarios that could compromise the security and operations of an organization. According to various sources of best practices123, an incident response plan should start by conducting a risk assessment to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities, and prioritize the critical systems that need to be protected and restored in case of an incident. Focusing on incidents that affect critical systems ensures that the incident response plan covers the most severe and impactful situations that could harm the organization's mission, reputation, or legal obligations.
NEW QUESTION # 170
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