[Oct-2023] AACN PCCN Test Engine PDF - All Free Dumps from Exam-Killer
Get New PCCN Certification – Valid Exam Dumps Questions
NEW QUESTION # 137
What is the first step of problem solving?
- A. define the issue
- B. identify concepts
- C. consider reason for action
- D. collect data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: Defining the issue is the first step in problem solving. Problem solving for satisfaction of patient/family involves forming a hypothesis, testing, and assessing data to determine if the hypothesis holds true.
NEW QUESTION # 138
If the patient has temp >38 degree centigrade or subnormal rectal temperature < 36 degress centigrade, tachypnea or PaCO2 < 32 mm of Hg, what is the diagnosis?
- A. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome
- B. None of the above
- C. Septic shock
- D. Neurogenic shock
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The patient is suffering from systemic inflammatory response syndrome, because it is ageneralized inflammatory response of the body including many systems,in this temp > 38 degree centigrade or subnormal rectal temperature, moreover there is tachypnea, tachycardia. Its features also include leukocytosis or leucopenia.
NEW QUESTION # 139
All of the following statements related to hemodialysis are true except:
- A. Coupling requires strict adherence to sterile technique
- B. When a synthetic graft is used, only one needle is required to "couple" the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry, using clean technique
- C. Both arterial and venous pressures are monitored in the dialysis circuitry
- D. 14- or 16-gauge needles are used in coupling the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: When a synthetic graft is used, only one needle is required to "couple" the dialysis catheter and the dialysis circuitry, using clean technique To initiate dialysis through a permanent access device, two 14- or 16-gauge needles are inserted into the dilated vein of the fistula or the graft portion of the synthetic graft. One needle is considered arterial, used for blood outflow, and the other is considered venous, used for blood return. Coupling is performed using sterile technique.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 383.
NEW QUESTION # 140
An Ethical Principle that relates to the distribution of limited resources of healthcare benefits to members of society is called:
- A. Empowering patients
- B. None of the above
- C. Justice
- D. Bioethics
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: An Ethical Principle that relates to the distribution of limited resources of healthcare benefits to members of society is called is justice. Justice is the Ethical Principle that relates to the distribution of limited healthcare resources to society. It means that the health care facilities should be distributed to all patients fairly and equally according to their needs. Nurse should not be Patient bias and should make justice between two patients.
NEW QUESTION # 141
The most common cause of respiratory failure in acutely ill patients is:
- A. Asthma
- B. Pulmonary hypertension
- C. Pneumonia
- D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Pneumonia
The most common cause of respiratory failure in acutely ill patients is pneumonia.
Pneumonia is the most common respiratory infection and the most common cause of respiratory failure in acutely ill patients.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 267.
NEW QUESTION # 142
The three most common congenital long-QT syndromes are:
- A. LQT1, LQT3, LQT5
- B. LQT11, LQT12, LQT13
- C. LQT1, LQT12, LQT13
- D. LQT1, LQT2, LQT3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: LQT1, LQT2, LQT3
The most common congenital long-QT syndromes are LQT1, LQT2, and LQT3, which are responsible for up to 90% of genotyped cases LQTS.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 444.
NEW QUESTION # 143
All of the following statements regarding obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are true except:
- A. Hypertrophy of the intraventricular septum is not present
- B. Ventricular outflow is obstructed just below the aortic valve and limits ejection
- C. It is a congenital condition
- D. Blood volume is trapped within the left ventricular chamber
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Hypertrophy of the intraventricular septum is not present The diagnosis of obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is made if hypertrophy of the intraventricular septum is also present. This is the congenital form of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 467.
NEW QUESTION # 144
All of the following statements are true related to acute respiratory distress syndrome except:
- A. The Berlin Definition categorizes the severity of acute respiratory distress syndrome
- B. It is characterized by non-pulmonary cardiac edema caused by decreased alveolar capillary membrane permeability
- C. It affects both lungs
- D. Patients with acute respiratory distress are at increased risk of infection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is characterized by non-pulmonary cardiac edema caused by decreased alveolar capillary membrane permeability Acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by non-cardiac pulmonary edema caused by increased, rather than decreased, alveolar capillary membrane permeability.
The acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) process disrupts normal macrophage function and increases the risk of infection. The Berlin definition of ARDS labels it as "mild," "moderate," or "severe." Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 257-258.
NEW QUESTION # 145
In a patient who has suffered an acute stroke who would otherwise be eligible for acute reperfusion therapy except that blood pressure is > 185/110 mm Hg, the correct dose of labetalol would be:
- A. Labetalol would not be given if considering a patient for reperfusion therapy
- B. Labetalol 0.1 mg IV over 1-2 minutes, may repeat 1 time
- C. Labetalol 10-20 mg IV over 1-2 minutes, may repeat 1 time
- D. Labetalol 50 mg IV followed by continuous IV infusion of 10-20 mg/min
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Labetalol 10-20 mg IV over 1-2 minutes, may repeat 1 time The correct dose of labetalol in this case is 10-20 mg IV over 1-2 minutes, may repeat 1 time. If blood pressure is not maintained at or below 185/110, rtPA should not be administered.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 314.
NEW QUESTION # 146
An Ethical Principle that involves performing actions that are for the purpose of benefiting another person is called:
- A. Beneficence
- B. Informed consent
- C. Bioethics
- D. Confidentiality
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: An Ethical Principle that involves performing actions that are for the purpose of benefiting another person is called beneficence. Beneficence is the Ethical Principle that involves performing actions that benefit another person. While managing a patient, any treatment or procedure should be done with the only goal of benefiting the patient.
NEW QUESTION # 147
Pancytopenia is a drop in which of the following?
- A. Red blood cells, hemoglobin, and hematocrit
- B. White blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
- C. Red blood cells, sodium, and potassium
- D. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and sodium
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: White blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
Pancytopenia (a drop in white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets) often occurs in cancer patients as a result of bone marrow suppression due to their specific treatment. In this case, the bone marrow fails to produce all three types of blood cells. Medications such as some antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents suppress the bone marrow and lead to anemia.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 326.
NEW QUESTION # 148
All of the following statements related to the practice of checking gastric residual volume are true except:
- A. Unless other signs of intolerance are identified, automatic cessation of enteral feeding should not be considered unless GVRs of greater than 500 mL are obtained
- B. One to two liters per day of saliva and gastric secretions are produced above the pylorus
- C. The routine practice of checking gastric residual volume has not been validated
- D. The type of feeding tube in place, as well as the method of aspiration, are factors which affect the assessment of gastric residual volume
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: One to two liters per day of saliva and gastric secretions are produced above the pylorus Two to four liters per day of saliva and gastric secretions are produced above the pylorus.
Conservatively, this means approximately 3 liters of fluid pass through the pylorus every 24 hours. Once gastric access is obtained, exogenous medications, water flushes, and enteral nutrition add to this volume.
The practice of measuring gastric residual volume has not been validated and is poorly standardized. In the supine position, especially with backrest elevation at 30 degrees or higher, the stomach contents fill the fundus first and "cascade over" the spine into the antrum and finally exit through the pylorus. For this reason, depending on the position of the patient's feeding port when the gastric residual volume is checked, the result may be erroneous and a function of the patient's supine positioning, rather than decreased gastrointestinal motility.
The type of feeding tube in place, as well as the method of aspiration, are also factors which affect the assessment of gastric residual volume. For clinicians who identify a need to assess gastric residual volumes, feedings should not be held for GVRs less than 500 mL unless other signs of intolerance are identified.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 363-364.
NEW QUESTION # 149
Regarding pneumonia and cross-contamination, which of the following statements is true?
- A. Hand washing is not necessary after contact with a respiratory device that is used by a patient when gloves are worn
- B. The use of large-volume room-air humidifiers that create aerosols (nebulizers) is acceptable if they can be sterilized at least daily and filled only with sterile water
- C. The appropriate use of gloves is the most effective strategy for decreasing the risk of cross- contamination via the hands of hospital personnel
- D. It is not necessary to wear gloves when handling the respiratory secretions of a patient who has been afebrile for the past 48 hours
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: The use of large-volume room-air humidifiers that create aerosols (nebulizers) is acceptable if they can be sterilized at least daily and filled only with sterile water Hand hygiene is the most effective strategy for reducing the risk of cross-contamination or colonization via the hands of hospital personnel. Hand washing is necessary before and after coming into contact with any respiratory device that is used by a patient, whether or not gloves are worn. Gloves should be worn when handling the respiratory secretions of any patient.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 270.
NEW QUESTION # 150
Following bariatric surgery, leakage of gastric contents at the site of the anastomosis can lead to overwhelming sepsis. Signs and symptoms of this potentially life-threatening complication include which of the following?
- A. Fever, bradycardia, bradypnea
- B. Tachycardia, left shoulder pain, tachypnea, fever
- C. Abdominal pain, tachycardia, tachypnea
- D. Fever, right shoulder pain, tachycardia, tachypnea
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: Tachycardia, left shoulder pain, tachypnea, fever
Signs and symptoms of leakage of gastric contents at the site of anastomosis include left shoulder pain, fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. Abdominal may occur in some patients, but its absence does not rule out the possibility of an anastomotic leak.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 361.
NEW QUESTION # 151
Which is the sentence a nurse needs to avoid while communicating with the patient?
- A. Do you think the treatment isn't helping you?
- B. Is there anything you'd like to discuss?
- C. I agree with you
- D. You are shaking
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: The nurse should not say, "I agree with you". A nurse should avoid non therapeutic communication with the patient. Only therapeutic communication is important. Non therapeutic communication can block effective communication.
NEW QUESTION # 152
Absolute contraindications to the use of thrombolytic agents include all of the following except:
- A. Facial trauma in the preceding 3 months
- B. Significant closed head injury within the previous 3 months
- C. Ischemic stroke within the previous 3 months (except acute ischemic stroke within 3 hours)
- D. Major surgery within the previous 6 weeks
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Major surgery within the previous 6 weeks
Major surgery within the previous 3 weeks is a relative contraindication to the use of thrombolytic agents.
Absolute contraindications to the use of thrombolytic agents include:
* Any active or recent bleeding
* Intraspinal or intracranial neoplasm
* Suspected aortic dissection
* Significant closed head injury or neurosurgery within the previous 3 months
* Arteriovenous malformation or aneurysms
* Facial trauma in the preceding 3 months
* Ischemic stroke within the previous 3 months (excluding acute ischemic stroke within 3 hours) Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 186.
NEW QUESTION # 153
All of the following are examples of rapid-acting insulins except:
- A. Novolog
- B. Aprida
- C. Levemir
- D. Humalog
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Levemir
Levemir is a long-acting insulin, not a rapid-acting insulin.
Rapid-acting insulins include Humalog, Novolog, Aprida, Humulin R and Novolin R.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 392.
NEW QUESTION # 154
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AACN PCCN exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions, and test-takers have three hours to complete the exam. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including cardiovascular, pulmonary, renal, endocrine, gastrointestinal, hematologic, neurological, and multisystem disorders. PCCN exam also includes questions on patient care management, ethical and legal issues, and patient/family education. PCCN exam is computer-based and is administered by the AACN Certification Corporation.
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